I am new to this group, but wanted to post a question. I am almost 40 years old and have had a pap smear every year without any issues. My period was definitely "off" this month. I have been on Yaz for 5 years to treat PMDD symptoms (after a failed endometrial ablation) and have not had a period or symptoms since starting the pill. This month I have had some spotting and heavy cramping, aches, bloating, etc... Last week, I went in for my yearly check up/pap. I told my doctor about the issues that I have been having & he said that since this was the first time that this has happened, we should just wait it out. Next month, if I am still having issues, I should call back to discuss other options. He said my exam appeared normal. I received the results of my pap today.
"Your pap smear has some minor atypical cells, without clear evidence of any precancerous changes. In this setting, we automatically check for the presence of high risk subtypes of HPV (the genital wart virus) which would give a higher risk for true precancerous changes. This testing for the HPV was negative. Because this testing was negative, we simply recommend a repeat of the pap smear in one year."
I was surprised that the doctor does not seem to be concerned with an abnormal pap & is telling me to repeat the pap in one year. I am wondering if the abnormal pap could be related to my period issues. Is this something that I should be concerned about? Should further testing be done to address these issues? Thanks for your help.